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General Psychiatry

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1. The following conditions are more common in women:  
A. Schizophrenia
F
B. Capgras delusion
T
C. de Clerambault’s syndrome
T
D. Bipolar Affective Disorder
F
E. Depression
T
   
2. The following conditions are more common in men:  
A. Post-traumatic epilepsy
T
B. Agoraphobia
F
C. Social Phobia
F
D. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
T
E. Dissociative amnesia
F
   
3. The following conditions are more common in upper social classes:  
A. Anorexia nervosa
T
B. Schizophrenia
F
C. Agoraphobia
F
D. Depression
F
E. Suicide
F
   
4. The following conditions are more common in urban, or socially deprived areas:  
A. Schizophrenia
T
B. Depression
T
C. Bipolar Affective Disorder
T
D. Dissociative disorders of movement and sensation
T
E. Epilepsy ?
   
5. The following associations with suicide are recognized:  
A. Peptic ulcer
T
B. Non-delusional dysmorphophobia
T
C. Huntington’s chorea
T
D. Epilepsy
T
E. Bereavement in childhood
T
   
6. The following conditions usually have their onset before the age of 35 years:  
A. Schizophrenia
T
B. Agoraphobia
T
C. Space phobia
F
D. Pick’s disease
F
E. Dissociative convulsions
T
   
7. The following are recognized associations:  
A. Panic disorder and mitral valve prolapse
T
B. Klinefelter's disease and epilepsy
T
C. Phaeochromocytoma and MEN type I syndrome
F
D. Insulinoma and MEN type II syndrome
F
E. Alcohol abuse and hepatocellular carcinoma
T
   
8. Regarding suicide:  
A. Drowning, as a method, is more common among men
F
B. It is the number one cause of death among young males aged 15-24
F
C. Only 25 % of suicide victims have a mental illness
F
D. Rate is highest in the winter months
F
E. Obsessive compulsive disorder is a risk factor
F
   
9. The following conditions are autosomal recessive:  
A. Leigh disease
T
B. Huntington’s chorea
F
C. Gaucher’s disease
T
D. Alzheimer’s disease (familial types)
F
E. Parry type of cerebral ceroid lipofuscinosis
F
   
10. The following conditions are autosomal dominant:  
A. Tay-Sachs disease
F
B. Porphyria
T
C. Phaechromocytoma
F
D. Metachromatic leucodystrophy
F
E. Wilson’s disease
F

 

Last Updated on Sunday, 30 June 2013 23:58

Psychopharmacology

1. The following statements are true:  
A. Drugs must be ionized to be absorbed by passive diffusion F
B. In an acid pH, basic drugs will be poorly absorbed T
C. Gastric emptying is delayed by MAOIs T
D. Food increases the absorption of diazepam T
E. Rectal administration results in extensive 1st pass metabolism F
   
2. Regarding some aspects of pharmacokinetics:  
A. Diazepam is 99% protein-bound T
B. Ionized drugs cross the blood-brain barrier easily F
C. Phase I reactions convert the drug to non-active metabolites F
D. Phase II reactions include glucuronidation and sulphation T
E. Hydroxylation is autosomal dominant T
   
3. Regarding Drug interactions:  
A. Carbamazepine can inhibit the metabolism of TCAs F
B. Phenothiazines can induce their own metabolism T
C. Haloperidol inhibits the metabolism of TCAs T
D. Cytochrome P450 inhibition by cimetidine is an important factor in healthy subjects F
E. Slow acetylators predominate in Europe and Japan F
   
4. The following are true:  
A. In the elderly, there is a reduction in plasma albumin T
B. There is a loss of body weight in the elderly F
C. In pregnancy, the increase in plasma volume results in an increase in the free fraction of a drug F
D. First-order kinetics are exponential T
E. Alcohol and aspirin undergo zero-order kinetics T
   
5. The following statements about the distribution of neurotransmitters are correct:  
A. Acetylcholine is found in the basal ganglia T
B. Dopamine cell bodies are found in the limbic system F
C. 5-HT predominates in the raphe nuclei in the brainstem T
D. Noradrenaline predominates in the locus coeruleus T
E. GABA is found in the peri-aqueductal grey matter F
   
6. The following are true statements about receptors:  
A. 5-HT2A antagonists improve slow-wave sleep T
B. 5-HT1A antagonists are anxiolytic F
C. D2 receptors are found in the limbic system T
D. Antagonism of alpha-2 adrenoceptors leads to reduced NA release F
E. Most antipsychotics are D2 agonists F
   
7. Regarding benzodiazepines (BZDs):  
A. BZDs bind to the gamma-2 subunit of the GABAB supramolecular complex F
B. BZDs can inhibit the effects of other neurotransmitters such as 5-HT T
C. Oxazepam and Lorazepam are short-acting BZDs T
D. The BZ1 receptor mediates the anti-anxiety effect of BZDs T
E. The BZ2 receptor is concentrated in the amygdala and septo-hippocampal pathways T
     
8. Regarding Benzodiazepines:  
A. Tolerance develops in 4-6 weeks of therapy F
B. Withdrawal can cause rebound insomnia T
C. BZDs are effective in phobic states F
D. Zopiclone and Zolpidem act upon the BZ2 receptor in a similar way to BZDs F
E. Withdrawal symptoms peak at 7-8 days T
   
9. The following are recognized side effects of BZDs:  
A. Ataxia T
B. Drowsiness T
C. Anterograde amnesia T
D. Nightmares F
E. Insomnia F
   
10. The following are recognized symptoms of the BZD withdrawal syndrome:  
A. Tremor T
B. Depression T
C. Tinnitus T
D. Blurred vision T
E. Sweating T
   
11. Factors associated with dependence and withdrawal problems are:  
A. Short duration of treatment F
B. Passive-dependent personality traits T
C. Age < 40 years F
D. Concurrent use of Buproprion T
E. High dose and rapid withdrawal T
   
12. Regarding Buspirone:  
A. Buspirone is a 5-HT1A agonist T
B. Buspirone has little effect on DA systems F
C. Effects are usually evident after 8-12 hours F
D. It can cause galactorrhoea T
E. Dysphoria has been reported T
   
13. Regarding the pharmacological treatment of anxiety disorders:  
A. Placebo-response rate is in the region of 20-30 % F
B. CBT is much less effective than drugs for anxiety F
C. Beta-blockers can cause anxiety F
D. Beta-blockers are associated with nightmares T
E. The effect of Beta-blockers usually takes up to a month to develop F
   
14. The following statements about antidepressants are true:  
A. Mianserin is an SSRI F
B. Reboxetine is a NaSSA F
C. Mirtazapine is a NARI F
D. Trazodone is an SNRI F
E. Nefazodone is an SSRI T
   
15. Regarding Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs):  
A. Treatment results in subsensitivity of NA and 5-HT receptors on cell bodies T
B. Tertiary amines have a higher affinity for the 5-HT uptake site T
C. Tertiary amines are less sedating F
D. Secondary amines have more anticholinergic side effects F
E. Tertiary amines have a quicker peak plasma level T
   
16. The following are true:  
A. Amoxapine has D2 antagonist properties T
B. Amitriptyline is a secondary amine F
C. Lofepramine is a tertiary amine T
D. Maprotiline is the most selective NA uptake inhibitor of the TCAs T
E. Imipramine is more selective for 5-HT than Nortriptyline T
   
17. Side effects of TCAs include:  
A. Sinus bradycardia F
B. Impairment of memory T
C. Postural hypotension due to alpha-1 adrenoceptor antagonism T
D. Weight gain due to histamine H1 agonism F
E. Negative inotropism T
   
18. Side effects of TCAs include:  
A. Prolongation of the PR interval T
B. Flattening of T waves T
C. Coarse tremor F
D. Raising of the seizure threshold F
E. Cholestatic jaundice T
   
19. Contraindications to TCAs include:  
A. Narrow angle glaucoma T
B. Elderly F
C. Heart block T
D. Previous MI F
E. Prostatic hypertrophy T
   
20. Regarding SSRIs:  
A. They reach peak levels within 1 hour of ingestion F
B. Long-term use results in reduced 5-HT2 function T
C. Fluoxetine has a half-life of around 7 days F
D. OCD is an indication for their use T
E. They should be avoided in people with cardiac disease F
   
21. Common side effects of SSRIs include:  
A. Diarrhoea T
B. Constipation T
C. Loss of appetite T
D. Weight gain F
E. Tremor T
   
22. Common side effects of SSRIs include:  
A. Anorgasmia T
B. Hypertension F
C. Tachycardia F
D. Alopecia F
E. Sweating T
   
23. Interactions of SSRIs include:  
A. Use with MAOIs can result in the 5-HT toxicity syndrome T
B. Lithium T
C. Diazepam and fluoxetine T
D. Warfarin T
E. Anti-convulsants T
   
24. Regarding MAOIs:  
A. Most are selective for MAOI-A F
B. Phenelzine has fewer side effects than isocarboxacid F
C. Hypotension is a major problem with tranycypramine F
D. Fast acetylators metabolize MAOIs at the same rate as slow acetylators F
E. It is said that atypical depression responds best to MAOIs T
   
25. Recognized side effects of MAOIs include:  
A. Mania T
B. Seizures T
C. Blurred vision T
D. Peripheral neuropathy T
E. Alopecia F
   
26. Important interactions with MAOIs can occur with:  
A. Some cough medicines T
B. Oral hypoglycaemics T
C. NSAIDs F
D. Cheese T
E. Calcium antagonists F
   
27. Contraindications for MAOIs include:  
A. Renal failure F
B. Congestive cardiac failure T
C. Concurrent use of TCAs F
D. Asthma F
E. Phaochromocytoma T
   
28. Mianserin:  
A. Is a weak NA reuptake inhibitor T
B. Is cardiotoxic F
C. Is an antagonist at histamine receptors and can cause weight gain T
D. Has no effect on the seizure threshold F
E. Can cause agranulocytosis T
   
29. Mirtazapine:  
A. Has little effect on histamine receptors F
B. Blocks alpha-2 autoreceptors T
C. Is alerting in its profile F
D. Can reduce appetite F
E. Can cause neutropenia T
   
30. Trazodone:  
A. Is non-sedating F
B. Has 5-HT agonist properties T
C. Should be taken with food T
D. Can cause priapism T
E. Has no effect on cognitive function F
   
31. Nefazodone:  
A. Has sedating properties due to alpha-1 adrenoceptor antagonism F
B. Dry mouth and dizziness can occur T
C. Has a long half-life F
D. Can affect the action of propanolol T
E. Can increase haloperidol levels T
   
32. Venlafaxine:  
A. Is an SNRI T
B. Lacks anticholinergic effects T
C. Has no effect on the seizure threshold F
D. Can be given with MAOIs F
E. Can cause hypotension T
   
33. L-Tryptophan:  
A. Is an effective antidepressant by itself F
B. Should not be used with MAOIs F
C. Can cause agranulocytosis F
D. Peripheral neuropathy may be a rare side effect T
E. Skin sclerosis can occur rarely T
   
34. Regarding the phenothiazines:  
A. Group one drugs include thioridazine F
B. Group three drugs include trifluoperazine T
C. Group two drugs have high levels of antimuscarinic side effects T
D. Group three drugs have low levels of extrapyramidal side effects F
E. Other classes of drugs tend to resemble group one phenothiazines F
   
34. Regarding other antipsychotic drugs:  
A. Droperidol is a butyrophenone T
B. Zuclopenthixol is a thioxanthene T
C. Olanzapine is a dibenzodiazepine F
D. Risperidone is a dibenzothiazepine F
E. Sulpiride is a substituted benzamied T
   
35. The following are true of movement disorders:  
A. Young females are at highest risk of acute dystonic reactions F
B. Extrapyramidal symptoms tend to occur within a few hours of drug administration F
C. Extrapyramidal symptoms are due to blockage of D2 receptors in the basal ganglia T
D. Increasing the dose can sometimes help extrapyramidal side effects F
E. Tardive dyskinesia is due to D2 receptor hypersensitivity T
   
36. The following are at increased risk of tardive dyskinesia:  
A. Female T
B. Affective disorders T
C. Continuous treatment F
D. Organic brain disease T
E. Increasing age T
   
37. Recognized side effects of antipsychotics include:  
A. Sedation due to muscarinic blockade F
B. Nasal congestion T
C. Impotence T
D. Psoriasis F
E. Hypertension F
   
38. Recognized side effects of antipsychotics include:  
A. Retinal pigmentation T
B. Leucocytosis F
C. Prolonged QT interval T
D. Weight loss F
E. Torsade de pointes T
   
39. Regarding neuroleptic malignant syndrome:  
A. Onset occurs after 1-2 months of treatment F
B. Onset is slow and insidious F
C. Symptoms include hypertonicity, stupor, and autonomic instability T
D. Mortality is 50 % F
E. Secondary conditions include thromboembolism, renal failure, and cardivascular collapse T
   
40. Risperidone:  
A. Has high affinity for the 5-HT2A receptor T
B. Can cause hyperprolacinaemia T
C. Weight loss is frequent F
D. Is less effective than conventional antipsychotics F
E. Headache and anxiety may occur T
   
41. Clozapine:  
A. Has low affinity for D2 receptors T
B. Has low affinity for D1 and D4 receptors F
C. Has few effects on adrenoceptors F
D. Can increase blood levels of warfarin and digoxin T
E. Metabolism by the cytochrome P450 system is not significant F
   
42. Side effects of Clozapine include:  
A. Bradycardia F
B. Weight gain T
C. Hypersalivation T
D. Increase in seizure threshold F
E. Neutropenia and agranulocytosis T
   
43. Olanzapine:  
A. Has lower affinity for the D2 and 5-HT2A receptors than Clozapine F
B. Has higher affinity for the D1 receptor than Clozapine F
C. Causes negligible weight gain F
D. Has high levels of Extra-pyramidal side effects F
E. Can cause marked sedation T
   
44. Quetiapine:  
A. Has a similar binding profile to clozapine T
B. Has a high affinity for muscarinic receptors F
C. Has lower affinity for all receptors than clozapine T
D. Causes less weight gain than olanzapine and clozapine T
E. Can cause constipation T
   
45. Sertindole:  
A. Has low affinity for the 5-HT2A receptor F
B. Specifically targets D2 receptors in the limbic region T
C. Causes high levels of EPS F
D. May cause orthostatic hypotension T
E. Has been linked to sudden cardiac death T
   
46. Amisulpride:  
A. Is a D2/ D3 agonist F
B. Blocks autoreceptors at low doses and can increase synaptic dopamine levels T
C. Does not increase prolactin levels F
D. Has a similar level of EPS across the whole dose range F
E. Is clinically effective for negative symptoms of schizophrenia at low doses (<300mg/ day) T
   
47. Lithium:  
A. Has its main effects on noradrenaline systems in the brain F
B. Works by affecting secondary messenger systems in the cell T
C. Increases the rate of formation of cAMP F
D. Works best with rapid-cycling patients F
E. Is reabsorbed from the kidney T
   
48. Side effects of Lithium include:  
A. Tremor T
B. Muscle weakness T
C. Decreased urine output F
D. Dysgeusia T
E. Weight gain more in men F
   
49. Side effects of lithium include:  
A. Cranial diabetes insipidus F
B. Hypothyroidism T
C. Shrinkage of the thyroid gland F
D. Hypoparathryoidism F
E. Females have thyroid side effects more commonly than men T
   
50. Side effects of lithium include:  
A. Leucocytosis T
B. Acne T
C. Alopecia T
D. T wave inversion and QRS narrowing F
E. Memory impairment T
   
51. The following statements are true:  
A. A rise in plasma sodium results in a rise in plasma lithium levels F
B. Dehydration results in a fall in plasma lithium levels F
C. Although lithium can treat bipolar illness, it has no effect on the number of relapses F
D. Thyroid gland disorders do not respond to thryoxine F
E. Lithium is distributed widely in the body T
   
52. Regarding lithium toxicity:  
A. Fine tremor is an early sign F
B. GI upset tends to occur early T
C. Neurological signs tend to appear later T
D. Hyporeflexia frequently occurs F
E. Coma may occur at high levels T
   
53. The following statements are true:  
A. Lithium inhibits the release of iodine, and thyroid hormones T
B. Lithium induces thyroid autoantibodies T
C. Lithium does not cross the placenta F
D. Lithium is excreted in breat milk T
E. Long term treatment does not seem to affect GFR T
   
54. Increased lithium levels occur with:  
A. Bendrofluazide T
B. Aspirin F
C. Metronidazole T
D. NSAIDs T
E. ACE-inhibitors T
   
55. Carbamazepine:  
A. Is a GABA agonist T
B. Affects calcium channels T
C. Induces its own metabolism T
D. Has a short half life F
E. Affects brain 5-HT function T
   
56. Side effects of carbamazepine include:  
A. Ataxia T
B. Diplopia T
C. SIADH T
D. Agranulocytosis T
E. Leucocytosis F
   
57. Interactions with carbamazepine include:  
A. Increased metabolism of tricyclic antidepressants T
B. Decreased metabolism of other anticonvulsants F
C. Neurotoxicity with lithium T
D. Reduced carbamazepine levels with SSRIs T
E. Higher levels of oral contraceptives F
   
58. Sodium Valproate:  
A. Is a GABA transaminase inhibitor T
B. Is absorbed slowly from the GI tract F
C. Should be given with caution in patients with liver disease T
D. Has no effects on the foetus F
E. Can increase the levels of phenytoin T
   
59. Side effects of Valproate include:  
A. GI upset T
B. Weight gain T
C. Ataxia T
D. Thrombocytosis F
E. Impaired platelet function T
   
60. Side effects of Valproate include:  
A. Acute pancreatitis T
B. Renal failure F
C. Hepatic enzyme changes T
D. Hepatic toxicity and death T
E. Valproate should be stopped if jaundice occurs T

 

Last Updated on Sunday, 30 June 2013 23:47

Descriptive Psychopathology

1. The borderline syndrome is characterized by:  
A. Splitting T
B. Good impulse control F
C. Euphoric affect F
D. Primitive idealization T
E. Feelings of emptiness T
   
2. Somatic symptoms of severe anxiety include:  
A. Impotence T
B. Diarrhoea T
C. Constipation T
D. Hypoventilation F
E. Sighing T
   
3. Symptoms of combat neurosis include:  
A. Anger T
B. Grandiose ideas F
C. Good interpersonal relationships F
D. Lack of guilt F
E. Flashbacks T
   
4. Autochthonous delusions are:  
A. Synonymous with primary delusions T
B. Rarely preceded by a delusional atmosphere F
C. A source of secondary delusions T
D. Pathognomonic of schizophrenia F
E. 'Brain waves' T
   
5. The foetal alcohol syndrome:  
A. Occurs with as few as four drinks per day T
B. Causes hydronephrosis T
C. Causes severe mental retardation F
D. Causes cleft lip and palate T
E. Is associated with liver abnormalities F
   
6. Normal experiences include:  
A. Jamais vu T
B. Delusional perception F
C. Derealization T
D. Visual hallucinations F
E. Deja-vecu T
   
7. In Briquet's syndrome:  
A. There is usually an organic basis F
B. Recurrence is unusual F
C. Somatic complaints are usually multiple T
D. The prognosis is excellent F
E. Surgery is treatment of choice F
   
8. Dissociative states:  
A. Occur in hysteria T
B. May be seen under hypnosis T
C. Include fugue states T
D. Exclude multiple personalities F
E. Are seen in petit-mal seizures F
   
9. Near-death experiences are:  
A. Associated with the name Moody T
B. Seen in life-threatening experiences T
C. A basis for reincarnation F
D. Features of altered states of consciousness T
E. Occurrences in life or death F
   
10. Briquet's syndrome:  
A. Is allied to hysteria T
B. Occurs in men F
C. Is synonymous with somatization disorder T
D. Has a prevalence of 1-2 % in women T
E. Has sexual symptoms infrequently F
   
11. Formal thought disorder includes:  
A. Drivelling T
B. Condensation T
C. Flight of ideas T
D. Perseveration T
E. Transitory thinking T
   
12. Concrete thinking:  
A. Is diagnostic of schizophrenia F
B. Is diagnostic of organic brain disease F
C. May occur in manic-depressive psychosis F
D. Is a defect of conceptual abstract thought T
E. Is tested by interpretation of proverbs T
   
13. Formication:  
A. Is the medical term for fornication F
B. May be seen in delirium T
C. Is a passivity phenomenon F
D. Is a tactile hallucination T
E. May be called the 'cocaine bug' T
   
14. In organic disturbance of mental state:  
A. Verbal IQ falls off before performance F
B. Concrete thinking is unusual F
C. Derealization occurs F
D. There is altered level of consciousness T
E. Visual hallucinations occur T
   
15. Pseudohallucinations occur in:  
A. Borderline personality disorder T
B. Hypnogogic states T
C. Hypnopompic states T
D. Bereavement T
E. Fatigue T
   
16. Normal experiences include:  
A. Hypnagogic hallucinations T
B. Hypnopompic hallucinations T
C. Depersonalization T
D. Flight of ideas F
E. Over-inclusive thinking F
   
17. Psychotic depression may be characterized by:  
A. Delusions of illness T
B. Jamais vu F
C. Visual hallucinations F
D. Nihilistic delusions T
E. Circumstantiality F
   
18. Delirium tremens is characterized by:  
A. Clouding of consciousness T
B. Visual hallucinations T
C. Lilliputian hallucinations T
D. Olfactory illusions F
E. Auditory illusions T
   
19. Jaspers described the following disorders of emotion:  
A. Apathy T
B. 'Free-floating' emotions T
C. Loss of feelings T
D. Changes in bodily feelings T
E. Changes in feelings of competence T
   
20. Delusional perception:  
A. Has two stages T
B. Is an autochthonous delusion T
C. Is often preceded by 'delusional mood' T
D. Occurs secondary to a hallucination F
E. Is a secondary delusion F
   
21. Pseuodohallucinations:  
A. Are subject to conscious manipulation F
B. Are dependent on environmental stimuli F
C. May occur in the real world F
D. May possess the vivid quality of normal perceptions F
E. Arise in inner space T
   
22. Depressive psychosis may be characterized by:  
A. Delusions of filth T
B. Delusions of poverty T
C. Delusions of guilt T
D. Primary delusions F
E. Auditory hallucinations T
   
23. In the postpartum period:  
A. The treatment of psychosis is different from psychotic illness at other times F
B. Psychosis begins within 3 months in 80 % of cases T
C. The risk of recurrence in future pregnancies is 1 in 5 T
D. Cerebral thrombo-embolic lesions may present as psychosis T
E. Transient weepiness is common in the first week T
   
24. The dysmnesic syndrome occurs in:  
A. Neurosis F
B. Uncomplicated psychosis F
C. Korsakoff's psychosis T
D. Mamillary body lesions T
E. Thalamic lesions T
   
25. Pseudodementia may be characterized by:  
A. Onset with depressive features T
B. Abnormal EEG F
C. Presence of localizing neurological signs F
D. Past or family history of manic-depressive psychosis T
E. Chronic course F
   
26. Echolalia occurs in:  
A. Catatonic schizophrenia T
B. Obsessional neurosis F
C. Mental handicap T
D. Manic-depressive psychosis F
E. Senile dementia T
   
27. Bromism may present with:  
A. Hypomania T
B. Auditory and visual hallucinations T
C. Delusions T
D. Depression T
E. Bad breath T
   
28. Encopresis in childhood:  
A. By definition occurs after age 5 F
B. Has equal sex distribution F
C. Is more prevalent than enuresis after age 16 F
D. Is always due to constipation F
E. May occur in conduct disorder T
   
29. Features of catatonic schizophrenia include:  
A. Forced grasping F
B. Mitgehen T
C. Athetosis F
D. Palilalia T
E. Logoclonia T
   
30. Eye to eye conduct:  
A. Is usually increased in depression F
B. Is never a sign of aggression F
C. Is an essential part of psychotherapy F
D. Is not influenced by cultural factors F
E. Is assessed in the mental state examination T
   
31. The Capgras delusion:  
A. Is allied to hysteria F
B. Usually is associated with organic brain disease F
C. Is also called 'pure erotomania' F
D. Is characterized by a pregnant husband F
E. Is also called 'delusion of doubles' T
   
32. First rank symptoms of schizophrenia:  
A. Are always pathognomonic of schizophrenia F
B. Include 2nd or 3rd party hallucinations F
C. Incorporate all passivity phenomena T
D. Exclude formal thought disorder T
E. Include incongruity of affect F
   
33. In the double-blind situation:  
A. Two conflicting messages are given simultaneously T
B. Experimental evidence is provided for schizophrenia F
C. A double-bind situation also occurs F
D. Comments on the situation itself are permitted F
E. Both messages are always verbal F
   
34. Features of hypomania may include:  
A. Hypersomnia F
B. Grandiose delusions T
C. Wise business investments F
D. Decreased libido F
E. Poverty of thought F
   
35. Folie du doute may be characterized by:  
A. Vacillation T
B. Delusions F
C. Indecisiveness T
D. Hallucinations F
E. Persistent doubting T
   
36. Formication:  
A. Refers to actual insects crawling on the skin F
B. Occurs in 'delusions of infestation' F
C. Is seen when cocaine is withdrawn only F
D. Is a second rank symptom of schizophrenia F
E. Is a disorder of thought content F
   
37. Simple schizophrenia may be characterized by:  
A. Hallucinations F
B. Late onset F
C. Gradual deterioration T
D. Social isolation T
E. Delusions F
   
38. Hallucinations may occur in:  
A. Acute confusional states T
B. Hysteria F
C. Drug withdrawal T
D. Petit-mal epilepsy F
E. Anxiety states F
   
39. Stupor may occur in:  
A. Mania T
B. Depression T
C. Hysteria F
D. Petit-mal epilepsy T
E. Gjessing's periodic catatonia T
   
40. The dysmnesic syndrome features:  
A. Paranoid delusions F
B. Delusional perception F
C. Ataxia T
D. Peripheral neuropathy T
E. Long-term memory impairment F
   
41. Hollingshead and Redlich:  
A. Published 'Social Class and Mental Health' T
B. Based their studies in New York F
C. Showed that upper class patients tended to use hospitals F
D. Showed that lower class patients tended to use outpatient clinics F
E. Are psychoanalysts F
   
42. Mirror gazing occurs in:  
A. Anorexia nervosa T
B. Manic-depressive psychosis F
C. Hebephrenia T
D. Obsessional neuroses F
E. Senile dementia T
   
43. Pathological excitement occurs in:  
A. Retarded depression F
B. Manic depressive psychosis T
C. Catatonic schizophrenia T
D. Delirium T
E. Normal subjects F
   
44. Obsessional thoughts:  
A. Always give rise to compulsions F
B. Are ego-alien T
C. Rarely are of a sexual nature F
D. Are best treated by thought stopping F
E. Usually respond to imipramine F
   
45. Electrical stimulation of the following causes anxiety:  
A. Vagus F
B. Hypothalamus F
C. Dorsal raphe nucleus F
D. Locus coeruleus T
E. Median raphe nucleus F
   
46. Obsessive rituals:  
A. Respond well to behaviour therapy F
B. Are usually anti-social F
C. Are not resisted F
D. Are sensibly regarded F
E. Reduce anxiety T
   
47. In psychogenic polydipsia:  
A. Polydipsia begins before polyuria T
B. Vasopressin may relieve thirst F
C. Urine flow decreases after hypertonic saline infusion T
D. Urine concentration is greater after vasopressin than after fluid deprivation F
E. Plasma osmolality is lower than normal T
   
48. Phobias have the following features:  
A. Viewed as negative compulsions T
B. Can be reasoned away F
C. Fear proportional to the threat F
D. Described by Marks in 1929 F
E. Involuntary T
   
49. The Ganser syndrome occurs in:  
A. Schizophrenia F
B. Manic-depressive psychosis F
C. Prisoners awaiting trial T
D. Personality disorders F
E. Hysteria F
   
50. Passivity experiences include:  
A. Made experiences T
B. Occur in manic-depressive psychosis F
C. Include echo de la pensee F
D. Are recognized in obsessional neurosis F
E. Exclude thought broadcasting F
   
51. Characteristic features of anorexia nervosa include:  
A. Normal BMR F
B. Hypothermia T
C. Lanugo hair T
D. Hypertension F
E. Phobia of normal body weight T
   
52. Agoraphobia is:  
A. Better treated by flooding than systematic desensitization T
B. Mainly seen in middle age T
C. A fear specific to open spaces F
D. Commoner in women T
E. Commonly associated with depersonalization T
   
53. The experience of depersonalization is:  
A. Usually pleasant F
B. Delusional F
C. Recognized as 'odd' T
D. Treatable with phenobarbitone F
E. Recognized as 'false' T
   
54. Animal phobias are:  
A. Commoner in men F
B. Usually occur in middle age F
C. Generally non-specific F
D. Treatable with behaviour therapy T
E. A poor diagnostic group F
   
55. Anaclitic depression is characterized by:  
A. Infants deprived of mother in early life T
B. Initial vigorous protest T
C. Severe despair T
D. A phase of detachment T
E. A predisposition to manic-depressive psychosis F
   
56. Social phobia:  
A. Is usually specific to a few individuals F
B. Has an equal sex distribution F
C. Is as common as agoraphobia F
D. Usually develops before puberty F
E. Responds poorly to behaviour therapy F
   
57. The following statements are true:  
A. Autoscopy is synonymous with phantom mirror-image T
B. Reflex hallucinations occur outside sensory field limits F
C. Functional hallucinations are experienced with their stimulus T
D. In extra-campine hallucinations, a stimulus in one sensory field produces a hallucination in another F
E. Functional hallucinations are rare in chronic schizophrenia F
   
58. Features of shell-shock include:  
A. Depersonalization T
B. Guilty ideation of delusional intensity F
C. Derealization T
D. Reliving the battle T
E. Calmness F
   
59. The following statements are true:  
A. Koro is an acute anxiety state T
B. Latah is an hysterical reaction to stress T
C. Windigo is a depressive psychosis T
D. Susto is an hysterical dissociation or depressive state F
E. Amok is an acute anxiety state F
   
60. Auditory pseudohallucinations occur in:  
A. Schizophrenia F
B. Hysteria T
C. Manic-depressive states F
D. Drug-induced states T
E. Phobic anxiety state F
   
61. The following statements are true in schizophrenia:  
A. Schism describes hostility between parents T
B. Skew describes a dominant mother and a submissive father T
C. Invalidation describes denial of feelings of family members T
D. Praecox feeling refers to empathic rapport with the patient T
E. Pseudomutuality is a method by which a family system maintains equilibrium T
   
62. Evidence for formal thought disorder includes:  
A. Inflexibility of personal constructs F
B. Knight's move thinking T
C. Loosening of personal constructs T
D. Nominal aphasia F
E. A normal repetory grid F
   
63. The revolving-door syndrome:  
A. May be due to cerebellar-vestibular dysfunction F
B. Is part of the revolving-room syndrome F
C. Refers to the cyclical re-admission of institutionalized patients T
D. Generates impressive 'statistics' for 'patient care' T
E. Rotates patients between system components with adequate care F
   
64. Schizophrenic thought disorder includes:  
A. 'Woolly' thinking T
B. Blurring of conceptual boundaries T
C. Paranoid delusions F
D. Omission T
E. Substitutions T
   
65. Delusions:  
A. Are held with a certainty that may be shakeable F
B. Are reality for the patient T
C. Are frequently held by other people F
D. Are rarely of personal significance T
E. Are usually of a bizarre nature F
   
66. The following statements are true:  
A. Mannerisms are non-goal directed repetitive movements F
B. Stereotypes are goal directed repetitive movements F
C. Opposition is an extreme form of negativism F
D. Athetosis consists of random, jerky movements F
E. Chorea consists of slow, writhing movements F
   
67. In Huntington's chorea:  
A. Athetoid movements are usual presenting signs F
B. Gross personality change is very unusual F
C. Children have a less rapid deterioration F
D. The onset of symptoms is usually in childhood F
E. 75 % of affected person's children develop the disease F
   
68. Illusions include:  
A. Macropsia T
B. Derealization T
C. Misinterpretations F
D. Depersonalization T
E. Micropsia T
   
69. Features of the Gilles de la Tourette syndrome include:  
A. Echolalia T
B. Coprolalia T
C. Coprophagia F
D. Flatus F
E. Echopraxia T
   
70. Eidetic images:  
A. Have been described by Taylor T
B. Are visual hallucinations F
C. Have never been perceived in relation to a real object F
D. May be thought of as 'photographic memory' T
E. Are a form of exterocepted visual pseudohallucinations T
   
71. With regard to psychiatric illness in general practice:  
A. Hysteria is very common F
B. Anxiety is relatively uncommon F
C. Psychotic illness is not usually referred F
D. 50 % of neurotic illness is usually referred F
E. Personality disorder is more common than depression F
   
72. Pseudohallucinations occur in:  
A. Dreams during sleep F
B. Lone prisoners T
C. Dreams whilst awake T
D. Long distance lorry drivers T
E. Sensory deprivation T
   
73. Treatment of postpartum 'blues' includes:  
A. Antidepressant medication F
B. Reassurance only F
C. Hypnotic medication F
D. Performing a dexamethasone suppression test F
E. Involvement of the husband in helping his wife T
   
74. Verbigeration occurs in:  
A. Extreme anxiety T
B. Ganser syndrome F
C. Senile dementia T
D. Malingering F
E. Catatonic schizophrenia T
   
75. The following associations are correct:  
A. Cameron and concrete thinking F
B. Schneider and condensation F
C. Bleuler and drivelling F
D. Goldstein and over-inclusive thinking F
E. Bleuler and loosening of associations T
   
76. The following statements are true:  
A. Delusions are ego involved T
B. Redundancy refers to the predictability of a word appearing T
C. Delusions are idiosyncratic T
D. Schizophrenic thought has a high level of redundancy F
E. Paranoia is another name for paraphrenia F
   
77. The characteristic hallucinations in alcoholic hallucinosis are:  
A. Visual T
B. Tactile F
C. Olfactory F
D. Auditory T
E. Gustatory F
   
78. Common associations with anorexia nervosa include:  
A. Delayed gastric emptying T
B. Lassitude F
C. Primary amenorrhoea F
D. Early morning waking T
E. Bulimia T
   
79. Phantom limb experiences:  
A. Only occur following limb amputation F
B. Include tactile hallucinations T
C. The phantom limb always corresponds in size to the previous limb F
D. Occurs in 70-100 % of all amputations after the age of 6 years T
E. 'Telescoping' occurs in one third of cases T
   
80. The following are true of culture-bound disorders:  
A. Latah features penile-retraction into the abdomen F
B. Piklokto is a dissociative state in Eskimo women T
C. Windigo involves mutation into a cannibalistic monster T
D. Koro features automatic obedience, echolalia, and echopraxia F
E. Susto involves loss of the soul T
The following questions don't have answers, but any psychiatric text should provide them.  
81. Features of normal pressure hydrocephalus include:  
A. Headache N
B. Memory impairment Y
C. Papilloedema N
D. Physical and mental retardation Y
E. A frequently abnormal EEG  
   
82. Features of Pick's disease may include:  
A. Fatuous mood Y
B. Apathy Y
C. General euphoria N
D. A frequently abnormal EEG N
E. Preservation of intellect N
   
83. Features of Alzheimer' s disease might include:  
A. Anxious mood Y
B. Depression Y
C. Specific abnormalities on EEG Y
D. A deficiency of GABA Y
E. A deficiency of serotonin Y
   
84. Neologisms occur in:  
A. Manic-depressive psychosis Y
B. Obsessional neurosis N
C. Organic brain disease  
D. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome  
E. Schizophrenia Y
   
85. Complications of chronic alcoholism may include:  
A. Paraesthesia and pain in the extremities Y
B. An abnormal pyruvate tolerance test  
C. Weakness of the limbs  
D. Osteoporosis N
E. A decrease in erythrocyte transketolase activity  

 

Last Updated on Sunday, 30 June 2013 21:39

Psychology

1. In behavioural psychotherapy :  
A. Flooding cannot be achieved in an imaginal way
F
B. Systematic desensitization is an aspect of aversive conditioning
F
C. Response prevention is characteristically combined with flooding
T
D. Physical restraint is no longer used in response prevention
F
E. Virtuous circles are a factor in most fear-reduction techniques
T
   
2. Simple phobias :  
A. Are commoner in men
F
B. Mostly arise de novo in adulthood
F
C. Are best treated by relaxation training
F
D. Typically lead to symptoms of depersonalization
F
E. Are associated with mitral valve prolapse
F
   
3. The following terms are correctly defined :  
A. Stimulus generalization is when a response learnt in one situation is exhibited in another
F
B. Primary reinforcers are things such as food and water
T
C. Secondary reinforcers are things such as sex, money, etc
F
D. Stimulus discrimination is when a learner responds differently to two slightly different stimuli
T
E. Response discrimination refers to the ability to make the same response in the same situation time after time
F
   
4. The following are true of various types of learning :  
A. shaping is also known as ‘cognitive dissonance’
F
B. backward chaining can be used to teach children to toilet themselves
T
C. observational learning is a type of classical conditioning
F
D. modelling is a type of observational learning
T
E. a programme which begins with reinforcement of the last act in a sequence is known as ‘forward chaining’
F
   
5. Systematic desensitization :  
A. was developed by Skinner
F
B. is a form of operant conditioning
F
C. is the treatment of choice for obsessional thoughts
F
D. relaxation is an essential part of the treatment
T
E. drugs can be used to produce relaxation
T
   
6. Variable ratio schedules of reinforcement :  
A. can only be used in operant conditioning situations
F
B. need proportionally more trials to achieve a given criteria of learning
F
C. increase the resistance to extinction
T
D. are more likely to produce emotional outbursts during the learning phase
T
E. are less likely to produce emotional outbursts during the extinction phase
T
   
7. With reference to conditioning models of behaviour :  
A. it is difficult to label any real life situation as totally operant or totally classical
T
B. in the 1940s, several psychoanalysts applied them successfully to demonstrate Freudian concepts
F
C. they can explain either systematic desensitization or flooding, but not both
F
D. they are increasingly demonstrating how unimportant cognitive factors are in behaviour
F
E. they emphasize the importance of timing and order in any learning situation
T
   
8. In classical conditioning:  
A. Thorndike is a key figure
F
B. Spontaneous recovery only occurs after a short delay
F
C. The longer the time between extinction and reappearance of CS, the weaker the response
F
D. Forward conditioning is when the CS always precedes the UCS
T
E. The strength of CR is proportional to the intensity of the UCS
T
   
9. The following statements about classical conditioning are true:  
A. The learned immune response is an example of classical conditionng
T
B. Taste aversions typify classical conditioning
F
C. Classical conditioning underlies systematic densitization
T
D. Second-order conditioning may be a model for the acquisition of phobias
T
E. Incubation means that some stimuli are more likely to become CS than others
F
   
10. Operant conditioning:  
A. Is the same as Instrumental conditioning
T
B. Is associated with B. F. Skinner
T
C. Extinction and spontaneous recovery do not occur
F
D. Positive reinforcers are inherently rewarding, e.g. food, sex
F
E. Negative reinforcers weaken a particular response
F
   
11. The following are true of reinforcement:  
A. Escape conditioning is an example of negative conditioning
T
B. A shuttle-box utilizes avoidance conditioning
F
C. Behaviour learned through avoidance conditioning is resistant to extinction as it is often reinforced by fear reduction
T
D. Money is a secondary reinforcer
T
E. Secondary reinforcers are also known as ‘conditioned reinforcers’
T
   
12. In reinforcement:  
A. A variable ratio schedule means that reinforcement is given after a variable amount of time
F
B. Gambling is an example of variable-interval conditioning
F
C. Partial reinforcement is involved in the development of superstitious behaviour
T
D. Variable ratio reinforcement results in quick, stepped responding
F
E. Behaviour learned through partial reinforcement is very resistant to extinction
T
   
13. Regarding operant conditioning:  
A. Punishment is synonymous with penalty
F
B. Punishment strengthens positive responses
F
C. Shaping is best used when the complete response desired is simple
F
D. Toilet training is an example of ‘backward chaining’
T
E. ‘Time-out’ is an example of the use of penalty
T
   
14. Regarding cognitive processes in learning:  
A. Seligman described learned helplessness
T
B. Insight learning can occur in primates
T
C. Bandura demonstrated vicarious conditioning
T
D. Practice of a skill is necessary until the point of almost-correct performance
F
E. Sign-learning theory includes the formation of cognitive maps
T
   
15. The following are true of perceptual theories:  
A. The ecological view states that the perceptual system constructs detail from clues in the environment
F
B. Constructionism is an example of top-down processing
T
C. Weber’s law states that as stimulus magnitude increases, larger changes in physical magnitude are required
F
D. Fechner’s law applies to electric shocks
F
E. Weber’s law does not hold when stimuli are very intense or very weak
T
   
16. In perceptual organization:  
A. Camouflage demonstrates reversal of figure and ground
F
B. Perceptual phenomena demonstrate Gestalt effects
T
C. Gestalt theories are an example of bottom-up processing
F
D. Perception of depth and distance illustrate ecological views of perception
T
E. Perception of movement does not rely on movement of the retinal image
T
   
17. The following are true:  
A. Perception of motion depends on interstimulus interval
T
B. Perceptual sets demonstrate top-down processing
T
C. Chunking of information facilitates processing
T
D. The ‘visual cliff’ suggests depth perception develops around six-months of age
F
E. Attention always occurs without conscious effort
F
   
18. The following are true of memory:  
A. The capacity of short term memory (STM) can be increased by chunking
T
B. Visually-encoded information fades more quickly from STM
T
C. Decay theory suggests that forgetting is item-dependent
F
D. Retroactive inhibition suggests that previous learning impairs subsequent learning
F
E. ECT can interrupt consolidation and produce retrograde amnesia
T
   
19. Models of memory include:  
A. Dual memory theory
T
B. Perceptual Representation System
F
C. Transfer-appropriate processing
T
D. Constructive memory
T
E. Maintenance rehearsal is more effective than elaborative rehearsal
F
   
20. Regarding the neurophysiology of memory:  
A. Bilateral damage to the hippocampus produces retrograde amnesia
F
B. Basal forebrain lesions can result in a Korsakoff’s type memory deficit
T
C. 5-HT agonists impair cognition since acetylcholine release is under inhibitory 5-HT tone
T
D. Endorphins are involved in memory processes
T
E. RNA is involved in memory transfer
T
   
21. Regarding theories of thought:  
A. Cognitive maps may exhibit systematic distortion
T
B. ‘Home’ is a natural concept
T
C. Scripts are mental representations of concepts
F
D. Problem solving involves ignoring negative evidence
F
E. Incubation can help to break mental sets
T
   
22. The following are true about theories of personality:  
A. Adler described ‘striving for superiority’
T
B. Adler emphasized the importance of sexual urges
F
C. Jung described ‘introversion’ and ‘extraversion’
T
D. Trait theories employ a normothetic approach
T
E. Eysenck used a ‘dimensional’ approach to personality
T
   
23. Regarding personality:  
A. Costa and McCrae’s model only holds in Westernized countries
F
B. John Watson is associated with personality research
T
C. Bandura described ‘reciprocal determinism’
T
D. Carl Rogers described ‘self-actualization’ and ‘self-concepts’
T
E. Maslow is associated with ‘conditions of worth’
F
   
24. The following are true of motivation:  
A. Drive reduction theory is based on the principle of homeostasis
T
B. Primary drives are learned desires
F
C. People perform best when their level of arousal is low
F
D. ‘Need achievement’ demonstrates clear gender differences
T
E. Belongingness and love are at the apex of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
F
   
25. Regarding emotion:  
A. Facial movements expressing emotion are controlled by the pyramidal system
F
B. The James-Lange theory emphasized the importance of physiological responses
T
C. The Cannon-Bard theory described ‘transferred excitation’
F
D. Social referencing only occurs in brain-damaged patients
F
E. Facial feedback can drive emotional experience according to the Schacter-Singer theory
F
   
26. Regarding social construction of the self and attribution theory:  
A. Festinger described ‘social comparison’
T
B. ‘Relative deprivation’ means that however much we get, it is less than we deserve
T
C. According to attribution theory, in internal attribution, distinctiveness is high, and consensus and consistency are low
F
D. The fundamental attribution error means that we tend to overattribute the behaviour of others to external factors
F
E. The ultimate attribution error means that we attribute others positive actions to external causes, and negative actions to internal causes
T
   
27. Regarding attitudes:  
A. Attitudes consist of cognitive, affective, and behavioural components
T
B. Attitudes can only be learned through operant conditioning
F
C. The ‘mere-exposure effect’ suggests that the more that we are exposed to an object, the more negative our attitudes will be towards it
F
D. The ‘Elaboration-likelihood model’ says that persuasive messages can change people’s attitudes via peripheral and central routes
T
   
28. The following are true of theories about attitudes:  
A. Leon Festinger is associated with ‘cognitive dissonance theory’
T
B. Cognitive dissonance may be more likely to change attitudes in individualist cultures such as Europe or the USA
T
C. Daryl Bem is associated with ‘Self-perception theory’
T
D. ‘Self-perception theory’ suggests that people infer their behaviour to match their attitudes
F
E. People may change their behaviour in situations where they are not sure what their attitudes are
T
   
29. The following are true of prejudices and stereotypes:  
A. The ‘authoritarian personality’ may be more likely in people who were not exposed to punishment, and so feel that they do not have to obey or defer to others
F
B. ‘Illusory correlations’ can occur when noticeably objective behaviour is performed by a few members of an easily identified ethnic group
T
C. The ‘contact hypothesis’ suggests that we are more likely to reduce our prejudices when we are exposed to members of the other group who are of a higher status
F
D. Norms can be descriptive (what others approve or disapprove of) or injunctive (indicate what others do)
F
E. Deindividuation may cause people to perform aggressive or illegal acts in certain situations
T
   
30. The following are true of conformity:  
A. Compliance occurs when people adjust their behaviour as a result of unspoken group pressure
F
B. Ambiguity of the situation increases the likelihood of conforming to a group norm
T
C. ‘Social impact theory’ holds that the power of a group depends on how important and how close that group is to the person in question
T
D. Women are more likely to conform to a group than men
F
E. The presence of others who disobey can make someone more likely to be obedient
F
   
31. The following are true of aggression:  
A. Freud proposed that aggression is a biological urge, and is due to Thanatos
T
B. The amygdala and hypothalamus are involved in aggression
T
C. Aggressive behaviour is more likely in collective cultures
F
D. Immediate reward or punishment can alter the frequency of aggressive acts
T
E. Aggression is more likely to occur following an expected failure than an unexpected one
F
   
32. In altruistic behaviour:  
A. The ‘bystander effect’ indicates that the more people who witness an emergency, the less likely it is that someone will help
T
B. The tendency to blame oneself rather than the group is called ‘diffusion of responsibility’
F
C. Task-oriented leaders are more effective when the task is structured
F
D. Person-oriented leaders are most effective when the group is working under time pressure
F
E. ‘Groupthink’ is likely when the group is isolated, and is under time pressure
T

 

Last Updated on Sunday, 30 June 2013 21:40

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