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General Psychiatry

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1. The following conditions are more common in women:  
A. Schizophrenia
B. Capgras delusion
C. de Clerambault’s syndrome
D. Bipolar Affective Disorder
E. Depression
2. The following conditions are more common in men:  
A. Post-traumatic epilepsy
B. Agoraphobia
C. Social Phobia
D. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
E. Dissociative amnesia
3. The following conditions are more common in upper social classes:  
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Schizophrenia
C. Agoraphobia
D. Depression
E. Suicide
4. The following conditions are more common in urban, or socially deprived areas:  
A. Schizophrenia
B. Depression
C. Bipolar Affective Disorder
D. Dissociative disorders of movement and sensation
E. Epilepsy ?
5. The following associations with suicide are recognized:  
A. Peptic ulcer
B. Non-delusional dysmorphophobia
C. Huntington’s chorea
D. Epilepsy
E. Bereavement in childhood
6. The following conditions usually have their onset before the age of 35 years:  
A. Schizophrenia
B. Agoraphobia
C. Space phobia
D. Pick’s disease
E. Dissociative convulsions
7. The following are recognized associations:  
A. Panic disorder and mitral valve prolapse
B. Klinefelter's disease and epilepsy
C. Phaeochromocytoma and MEN type I syndrome
D. Insulinoma and MEN type II syndrome
E. Alcohol abuse and hepatocellular carcinoma
8. Regarding suicide:  
A. Drowning, as a method, is more common among men
B. It is the number one cause of death among young males aged 15-24
C. Only 25 % of suicide victims have a mental illness
D. Rate is highest in the winter months
E. Obsessive compulsive disorder is a risk factor
9. The following conditions are autosomal recessive:  
A. Leigh disease
B. Huntington’s chorea
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Alzheimer’s disease (familial types)
E. Parry type of cerebral ceroid lipofuscinosis
10. The following conditions are autosomal dominant:  
A. Tay-Sachs disease
B. Porphyria
C. Phaechromocytoma
D. Metachromatic leucodystrophy
E. Wilson’s disease


Last Updated on Sunday, 30 June 2013 23:58


1. The following statements are true:  
A. Drugs must be ionized to be absorbed by passive diffusion F
B. In an acid pH, basic drugs will be poorly absorbed T
C. Gastric emptying is delayed by MAOIs T
D. Food increases the absorption of diazepam T
E. Rectal administration results in extensive 1st pass metabolism F
2. Regarding some aspects of pharmacokinetics:  
A. Diazepam is 99% protein-bound T
B. Ionized drugs cross the blood-brain barrier easily F
C. Phase I reactions convert the drug to non-active metabolites F
D. Phase II reactions include glucuronidation and sulphation T
E. Hydroxylation is autosomal dominant T
3. Regarding Drug interactions:  
A. Carbamazepine can inhibit the metabolism of TCAs F
B. Phenothiazines can induce their own metabolism T
C. Haloperidol inhibits the metabolism of TCAs T
D. Cytochrome P450 inhibition by cimetidine is an important factor in healthy subjects F
E. Slow acetylators predominate in Europe and Japan F
4. The following are true:  
A. In the elderly, there is a reduction in plasma albumin T
B. There is a loss of body weight in the elderly F
C. In pregnancy, the increase in plasma volume results in an increase in the free fraction of a drug F
D. First-order kinetics are exponential T
E. Alcohol and aspirin undergo zero-order kinetics T
5. The following statements about the distribution of neurotransmitters are correct:  
A. Acetylcholine is found in the basal ganglia T
B. Dopamine cell bodies are found in the limbic system F
C. 5-HT predominates in the raphe nuclei in the brainstem T
D. Noradrenaline predominates in the locus coeruleus T
E. GABA is found in the peri-aqueductal grey matter F
6. The following are true statements about receptors:  
A. 5-HT2A antagonists improve slow-wave sleep T
B. 5-HT1A antagonists are anxiolytic F
C. D2 receptors are found in the limbic system T
D. Antagonism of alpha-2 adrenoceptors leads to reduced NA release F
E. Most antipsychotics are D2 agonists F
7. Regarding benzodiazepines (BZDs):  
A. BZDs bind to the gamma-2 subunit of the GABAB supramolecular complex F
B. BZDs can inhibit the effects of other neurotransmitters such as 5-HT T
C. Oxazepam and Lorazepam are short-acting BZDs T
D. The BZ1 receptor mediates the anti-anxiety effect of BZDs T
E. The BZ2 receptor is concentrated in the amygdala and septo-hippocampal pathways T
8. Regarding Benzodiazepines:  
A. Tolerance develops in 4-6 weeks of therapy F
B. Withdrawal can cause rebound insomnia T
C. BZDs are effective in phobic states F
D. Zopiclone and Zolpidem act upon the BZ2 receptor in a similar way to BZDs F
E. Withdrawal symptoms peak at 7-8 days T
9. The following are recognized side effects of BZDs:  
A. Ataxia T
B. Drowsiness T
C. Anterograde amnesia T
D. Nightmares F
E. Insomnia F
10. The following are recognized symptoms of the BZD withdrawal syndrome:  
A. Tremor T
B. Depression T
C. Tinnitus T
D. Blurred vision T
E. Sweating T
11. Factors associated with dependence and withdrawal problems are:  
A. Short duration of treatment F
B. Passive-dependent personality traits T
C. Age < 40 years F
D. Concurrent use of Buproprion T
E. High dose and rapid withdrawal T
12. Regarding Buspirone:  
A. Buspirone is a 5-HT1A agonist T
B. Buspirone has little effect on DA systems F
C. Effects are usually evident after 8-12 hours F
D. It can cause galactorrhoea T
E. Dysphoria has been reported T
13. Regarding the pharmacological treatment of anxiety disorders:  
A. Placebo-response rate is in the region of 20-30 % F
B. CBT is much less effective than drugs for anxiety F
C. Beta-blockers can cause anxiety F
D. Beta-blockers are associated with nightmares T
E. The effect of Beta-blockers usually takes up to a month to develop F
14. The following statements about antidepressants are true:  
A. Mianserin is an SSRI F
B. Reboxetine is a NaSSA F
C. Mirtazapine is a NARI F
D. Trazodone is an SNRI F
E. Nefazodone is an SSRI T
15. Regarding Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs):  
A. Treatment results in subsensitivity of NA and 5-HT receptors on cell bodies T
B. Tertiary amines have a higher affinity for the 5-HT uptake site T
C. Tertiary amines are less sedating F
D. Secondary amines have more anticholinergic side effects F
E. Tertiary amines have a quicker peak plasma level T
16. The following are true:  
A. Amoxapine has D2 antagonist properties T
B. Amitriptyline is a secondary amine F
C. Lofepramine is a tertiary amine T
D. Maprotiline is the most selective NA uptake inhibitor of the TCAs T
E. Imipramine is more selective for 5-HT than Nortriptyline T
17. Side effects of TCAs include:  
A. Sinus bradycardia F
B. Impairment of memory T
C. Postural hypotension due to alpha-1 adrenoceptor antagonism T
D. Weight gain due to histamine H1 agonism F
E. Negative inotropism T
18. Side effects of TCAs include:  
A. Prolongation of the PR interval T
B. Flattening of T waves T
C. Coarse tremor F
D. Raising of the seizure threshold F
E. Cholestatic jaundice T
19. Contraindications to TCAs include:  
A. Narrow angle glaucoma T
B. Elderly F
C. Heart block T
D. Previous MI F
E. Prostatic hypertrophy T
20. Regarding SSRIs:  
A. They reach peak levels within 1 hour of ingestion F
B. Long-term use results in reduced 5-HT2 function T
C. Fluoxetine has a half-life of around 7 days F
D. OCD is an indication for their use T
E. They should be avoided in people with cardiac disease F
21. Common side effects of SSRIs include:  
A. Diarrhoea T
B. Constipation T
C. Loss of appetite T
D. Weight gain F
E. Tremor T
22. Common side effects of SSRIs include:  
A. Anorgasmia T
B. Hypertension F
C. Tachycardia F
D. Alopecia F
E. Sweating T
23. Interactions of SSRIs include:  
A. Use with MAOIs can result in the 5-HT toxicity syndrome T
B. Lithium T
C. Diazepam and fluoxetine T
D. Warfarin T
E. Anti-convulsants T
24. Regarding MAOIs:  
A. Most are selective for MAOI-A F
B. Phenelzine has fewer side effects than isocarboxacid F
C. Hypotension is a major problem with tranycypramine F
D. Fast acetylators metabolize MAOIs at the same rate as slow acetylators F
E. It is said that atypical depression responds best to MAOIs T
25. Recognized side effects of MAOIs include:  
A. Mania T
B. Seizures T
C. Blurred vision T
D. Peripheral neuropathy T
E. Alopecia F
26. Important interactions with MAOIs can occur with:  
A. Some cough medicines T
B. Oral hypoglycaemics T
D. Cheese T
E. Calcium antagonists F
27. Contraindications for MAOIs include:  
A. Renal failure F
B. Congestive cardiac failure T
C. Concurrent use of TCAs F
D. Asthma F
E. Phaochromocytoma T
28. Mianserin:  
A. Is a weak NA reuptake inhibitor T
B. Is cardiotoxic F
C. Is an antagonist at histamine receptors and can cause weight gain T
D. Has no effect on the seizure threshold F
E. Can cause agranulocytosis T
29. Mirtazapine:  
A. Has little effect on histamine receptors F
B. Blocks alpha-2 autoreceptors T
C. Is alerting in its profile F
D. Can reduce appetite F
E. Can cause neutropenia T
30. Trazodone:  
A. Is non-sedating F
B. Has 5-HT agonist properties T
C. Should be taken with food T
D. Can cause priapism T
E. Has no effect on cognitive function F
31. Nefazodone:  
A. Has sedating properties due to alpha-1 adrenoceptor antagonism F
B. Dry mouth and dizziness can occur T
C. Has a long half-life F
D. Can affect the action of propanolol T
E. Can increase haloperidol levels T
32. Venlafaxine:  
A. Is an SNRI T
B. Lacks anticholinergic effects T
C. Has no effect on the seizure threshold F
D. Can be given with MAOIs F
E. Can cause hypotension T
33. L-Tryptophan:  
A. Is an effective antidepressant by itself F
B. Should not be used with MAOIs F
C. Can cause agranulocytosis F
D. Peripheral neuropathy may be a rare side effect T
E. Skin sclerosis can occur rarely T
34. Regarding the phenothiazines:  
A. Group one drugs include thioridazine F
B. Group three drugs include trifluoperazine T
C. Group two drugs have high levels of antimuscarinic side effects T
D. Group three drugs have low levels of extrapyramidal side effects F
E. Other classes of drugs tend to resemble group one phenothiazines F
34. Regarding other antipsychotic drugs:  
A. Droperidol is a butyrophenone T
B. Zuclopenthixol is a thioxanthene T
C. Olanzapine is a dibenzodiazepine F
D. Risperidone is a dibenzothiazepine F
E. Sulpiride is a substituted benzamied T
35. The following are true of movement disorders:  
A. Young females are at highest risk of acute dystonic reactions F
B. Extrapyramidal symptoms tend to occur within a few hours of drug administration F
C. Extrapyramidal symptoms are due to blockage of D2 receptors in the basal ganglia T
D. Increasing the dose can sometimes help extrapyramidal side effects F
E. Tardive dyskinesia is due to D2 receptor hypersensitivity T
36. The following are at increased risk of tardive dyskinesia:  
A. Female T
B. Affective disorders T
C. Continuous treatment F
D. Organic brain disease T
E. Increasing age T
37. Recognized side effects of antipsychotics include:  
A. Sedation due to muscarinic blockade F
B. Nasal congestion T
C. Impotence T
D. Psoriasis F
E. Hypertension F
38. Recognized side effects of antipsychotics include:  
A. Retinal pigmentation T
B. Leucocytosis F
C. Prolonged QT interval T
D. Weight loss F
E. Torsade de pointes T
39. Regarding neuroleptic malignant syndrome:  
A. Onset occurs after 1-2 months of treatment F
B. Onset is slow and insidious F
C. Symptoms include hypertonicity, stupor, and autonomic instability T
D. Mortality is 50 % F
E. Secondary conditions include thromboembolism, renal failure, and cardivascular collapse T
40. Risperidone:  
A. Has high affinity for the 5-HT2A receptor T
B. Can cause hyperprolacinaemia T
C. Weight loss is frequent F
D. Is less effective than conventional antipsychotics F
E. Headache and anxiety may occur T
41. Clozapine:  
A. Has low affinity for D2 receptors T
B. Has low affinity for D1 and D4 receptors F
C. Has few effects on adrenoceptors F
D. Can increase blood levels of warfarin and digoxin T
E. Metabolism by the cytochrome P450 system is not significant F
42. Side effects of Clozapine include:  
A. Bradycardia F
B. Weight gain T
C. Hypersalivation T
D. Increase in seizure threshold F
E. Neutropenia and agranulocytosis T
43. Olanzapine:  
A. Has lower affinity for the D2 and 5-HT2A receptors than Clozapine F
B. Has higher affinity for the D1 receptor than Clozapine F
C. Causes negligible weight gain F
D. Has high levels of Extra-pyramidal side effects F
E. Can cause marked sedation T
44. Quetiapine:  
A. Has a similar binding profile to clozapine T
B. Has a high affinity for muscarinic receptors F
C. Has lower affinity for all receptors than clozapine T
D. Causes less weight gain than olanzapine and clozapine T
E. Can cause constipation T
45. Sertindole:  
A. Has low affinity for the 5-HT2A receptor F
B. Specifically targets D2 receptors in the limbic region T
C. Causes high levels of EPS F
D. May cause orthostatic hypotension T
E. Has been linked to sudden cardiac death T
46. Amisulpride:  
A. Is a D2/ D3 agonist F
B. Blocks autoreceptors at low doses and can increase synaptic dopamine levels T
C. Does not increase prolactin levels F
D. Has a similar level of EPS across the whole dose range F
E. Is clinically effective for negative symptoms of schizophrenia at low doses (<300mg/ day) T
47. Lithium:  
A. Has its main effects on noradrenaline systems in the brain F
B. Works by affecting secondary messenger systems in the cell T
C. Increases the rate of formation of cAMP F
D. Works best with rapid-cycling patients F
E. Is reabsorbed from the kidney T
48. Side effects of Lithium include:  
A. Tremor T
B. Muscle weakness T
C. Decreased urine output F
D. Dysgeusia T
E. Weight gain more in men F
49. Side effects of lithium include:  
A. Cranial diabetes insipidus F
B. Hypothyroidism T
C. Shrinkage of the thyroid gland F
D. Hypoparathryoidism F
E. Females have thyroid side effects more commonly than men T
50. Side effects of lithium include:  
A. Leucocytosis T
B. Acne T
C. Alopecia T
D. T wave inversion and QRS narrowing F
E. Memory impairment T
51. The following statements are true:  
A. A rise in plasma sodium results in a rise in plasma lithium levels F
B. Dehydration results in a fall in plasma lithium levels F
C. Although lithium can treat bipolar illness, it has no effect on the number of relapses F
D. Thyroid gland disorders do not respond to thryoxine F
E. Lithium is distributed widely in the body T
52. Regarding lithium toxicity:  
A. Fine tremor is an early sign F
B. GI upset tends to occur early T
C. Neurological signs tend to appear later T
D. Hyporeflexia frequently occurs F
E. Coma may occur at high levels T
53. The following statements are true:  
A. Lithium inhibits the release of iodine, and thyroid hormones T
B. Lithium induces thyroid autoantibodies T
C. Lithium does not cross the placenta F
D. Lithium is excreted in breat milk T
E. Long term treatment does not seem to affect GFR T
54. Increased lithium levels occur with:  
A. Bendrofluazide T
B. Aspirin F
C. Metronidazole T
E. ACE-inhibitors T
55. Carbamazepine:  
A. Is a GABA agonist T
B. Affects calcium channels T
C. Induces its own metabolism T
D. Has a short half life F
E. Affects brain 5-HT function T
56. Side effects of carbamazepine include:  
A. Ataxia T
B. Diplopia T
D. Agranulocytosis T
E. Leucocytosis F
57. Interactions with carbamazepine include:  
A. Increased metabolism of tricyclic antidepressants T
B. Decreased metabolism of other anticonvulsants F
C. Neurotoxicity with lithium T
D. Reduced carbamazepine levels with SSRIs T
E. Higher levels of oral contraceptives F
58. Sodium Valproate:  
A. Is a GABA transaminase inhibitor T
B. Is absorbed slowly from the GI tract F
C. Should be given with caution in patients with liver disease T
D. Has no effects on the foetus F
E. Can increase the levels of phenytoin T
59. Side effects of Valproate include:  
A. GI upset T
B. Weight gain T
C. Ataxia T
D. Thrombocytosis F
E. Impaired platelet function T
60. Side effects of Valproate include:  
A. Acute pancreatitis T
B. Renal failure F
C. Hepatic enzyme changes T
D. Hepatic toxicity and death T
E. Valproate should be stopped if jaundice occurs T


Last Updated on Sunday, 30 June 2013 23:47

Descriptive Psychopathology

1. The borderline syndrome is characterized by:  
A. Splitting T
B. Good impulse control F
C. Euphoric affect F
D. Primitive idealization T
E. Feelings of emptiness T
2. Somatic symptoms of severe anxiety include:  
A. Impotence T
B. Diarrhoea T
C. Constipation T
D. Hypoventilation F
E. Sighing T
3. Symptoms of combat neurosis include:  
A. Anger T
B. Grandiose ideas F
C. Good interpersonal relationships F
D. Lack of guilt F
E. Flashbacks T
4. Autochthonous delusions are:  
A. Synonymous with primary delusions T
B. Rarely preceded by a delusional atmosphere F
C. A source of secondary delusions T
D. Pathognomonic of schizophrenia F
E. 'Brain waves' T
5. The foetal alcohol syndrome:  
A. Occurs with as few as four drinks per day T
B. Causes hydronephrosis T
C. Causes severe mental retardation F
D. Causes cleft lip and palate T
E. Is associated with liver abnormalities F
6. Normal experiences include:  
A. Jamais vu T
B. Delusional perception F
C. Derealization T
D. Visual hallucinations F
E. Deja-vecu T
7. In Briquet's syndrome:  
A. There is usually an organic basis F
B. Recurrence is unusual F
C. Somatic complaints are usually multiple T
D. The prognosis is excellent F
E. Surgery is treatment of choice F
8. Dissociative states:  
A. Occur in hysteria T
B. May be seen under hypnosis T
C. Include fugue states T
D. Exclude multiple personalities F
E. Are seen in petit-mal seizures F
9. Near-death experiences are:  
A. Associated with the name Moody T
B. Seen in life-threatening experiences T
C. A basis for reincarnation F
D. Features of altered states of consciousness T
E. Occurrences in life or death F
10. Briquet's syndrome:  
A. Is allied to hysteria T
B. Occurs in men F
C. Is synonymous with somatization disorder T
D. Has a prevalence of 1-2 % in women T
E. Has sexual symptoms infrequently F
11. Formal thought disorder includes:  
A. Drivelling T
B. Condensation T
C. Flight of ideas T
D. Perseveration T
E. Transitory thinking T
12. Concrete thinking:  
A. Is diagnostic of schizophrenia F
B. Is diagnostic of organic brain disease F
C. May occur in manic-depressive psychosis F
D. Is a defect of conceptual abstract thought T
E. Is tested by interpretation of proverbs T
13. Formication:  
A. Is the medical term for fornication F
B. May be seen in delirium T
C. Is a passivity phenomenon F
D. Is a tactile hallucination T
E. May be called the 'cocaine bug' T
14. In organic disturbance of mental state:  
A. Verbal IQ falls off before performance F
B. Concrete thinking is unusual F
C. Derealization occurs F
D. There is altered level of consciousness T
E. Visual hallucinations occur T
15. Pseudohallucinations occur in:  
A. Borderline personality disorder T
B. Hypnogogic states T
C. Hypnopompic states T
D. Bereavement T
E. Fatigue T
16. Normal experiences include:  
A. Hypnagogic hallucinations T
B. Hypnopompic hallucinations T
C. Depersonalization T
D. Flight of ideas F
E. Over-inclusive thinking F
17. Psychotic depression may be characterized by:  
A. Delusions of illness T
B. Jamais vu F
C. Visual hallucinations F
D. Nihilistic delusions T
E. Circumstantiality F
18. Delirium tremens is characterized by:  
A. Clouding of consciousness T
B. Visual hallucinations T
C. Lilliputian hallucinations T
D. Olfactory illusions F
E. Auditory illusions T
19. Jaspers described the following disorders of emotion:  
A. Apathy T
B. 'Free-floating' emotions T
C. Loss of feelings T
D. Changes in bodily feelings T
E. Changes in feelings of competence T
20. Delusional perception:  
A. Has two stages T
B. Is an autochthonous delusion T
C. Is often preceded by 'delusional mood' T
D. Occurs secondary to a hallucination F
E. Is a secondary delusion F
21. Pseuodohallucinations:  
A. Are subject to conscious manipulation F
B. Are dependent on environmental stimuli F
C. May occur in the real world F
D. May possess the vivid quality of normal perceptions F
E. Arise in inner space T
22. Depressive psychosis may be characterized by:  
A. Delusions of filth T
B. Delusions of poverty T
C. Delusions of guilt T
D. Primary delusions F
E. Auditory hallucinations T
23. In the postpartum period:  
A. The treatment of psychosis is different from psychotic illness at other times F
B. Psychosis begins within 3 months in 80 % of cases T
C. The risk of recurrence in future pregnancies is 1 in 5 T
D. Cerebral thrombo-embolic lesions may present as psychosis T
E. Transient weepiness is common in the first week T
24. The dysmnesic syndrome occurs in:  
A. Neurosis F
B. Uncomplicated psychosis F
C. Korsakoff's psychosis T
D. Mamillary body lesions T
E. Thalamic lesions T
25. Pseudodementia may be characterized by:  
A. Onset with depressive features T
B. Abnormal EEG F
C. Presence of localizing neurological signs F
D. Past or family history of manic-depressive psychosis T
E. Chronic course F
26. Echolalia occurs in:  
A. Catatonic schizophrenia T
B. Obsessional neurosis F
C. Mental handicap T
D. Manic-depressive psychosis F
E. Senile dementia T
27. Bromism may present with:  
A. Hypomania T
B. Auditory and visual hallucinations T
C. Delusions T
D. Depression T
E. Bad breath T
28. Encopresis in childhood:  
A. By definition occurs after age 5 F
B. Has equal sex distribution F
C. Is more prevalent than enuresis after age 16 F
D. Is always due to constipation F
E. May occur in conduct disorder T
29. Features of catatonic schizophrenia include:  
A. Forced grasping F
B. Mitgehen T
C. Athetosis F
D. Palilalia T
E. Logoclonia T
30. Eye to eye conduct:  
A. Is usually increased in depression F
B. Is never a sign of aggression F
C. Is an essential part of psychotherapy F
D. Is not influenced by cultural factors F
E. Is assessed in the mental state examination T
31. The Capgras delusion:  
A. Is allied to hysteria F
B. Usually is associated with organic brain disease F
C. Is also called 'pure erotomania' F
D. Is characterized by a pregnant husband F
E. Is also called 'delusion of doubles' T
32. First rank symptoms of schizophrenia:  
A. Are always pathognomonic of schizophrenia F
B. Include 2nd or 3rd party hallucinations F
C. Incorporate all passivity phenomena T
D. Exclude formal thought disorder T
E. Include incongruity of affect F
33. In the double-blind situation:  
A. Two conflicting messages are given simultaneously T
B. Experimental evidence is provided for schizophrenia F
C. A double-bind situation also occurs F
D. Comments on the situation itself are permitted F
E. Both messages are always verbal F
34. Features of hypomania may include:  
A. Hypersomnia F
B. Grandiose delusions T
C. Wise business investments F
D. Decreased libido F
E. Poverty of thought F
35. Folie du doute may be characterized by:  
A. Vacillation T
B. Delusions F
C. Indecisiveness T
D. Hallucinations F
E. Persistent doubting T
36. Formication:  
A. Refers to actual insects crawling on the skin F
B. Occurs in 'delusions of infestation' F
C. Is seen when cocaine is withdrawn only F
D. Is a second rank symptom of schizophrenia F
E. Is a disorder of thought content F
37. Simple schizophrenia may be characterized by:  
A. Hallucinations F
B. Late onset F
C. Gradual deterioration T
D. Social isolation T
E. Delusions F
38. Hallucinations may occur in:  
A. Acute confusional states T
B. Hysteria F
C. Drug withdrawal T
D. Petit-mal epilepsy F
E. Anxiety states F
39. Stupor may occur in:  
A. Mania T
B. Depression T
C. Hysteria F
D. Petit-mal epilepsy T
E. Gjessing's periodic catatonia T
40. The dysmnesic syndrome features:  
A. Paranoid delusions F
B. Delusional perception F
C. Ataxia T
D. Peripheral neuropathy T
E. Long-term memory impairment F
41. Hollingshead and Redlich:  
A. Published 'Social Class and Mental Health' T
B. Based their studies in New York F
C. Showed that upper class patients tended to use hospitals F
D. Showed that lower class patients tended to use outpatient clinics F
E. Are psychoanalysts F
42. Mirror gazing occurs in:  
A. Anorexia nervosa T
B. Manic-depressive psychosis F
C. Hebephrenia T
D. Obsessional neuroses F
E. Senile dementia T
43. Pathological excitement occurs in:  
A. Retarded depression F
B. Manic depressive psychosis T
C. Catatonic schizophrenia T
D. Delirium T
E. Normal subjects F
44. Obsessional thoughts:  
A. Always give rise to compulsions F
B. Are ego-alien T
C. Rarely are of a sexual nature F
D. Are best treated by thought stopping F
E. Usually respond to imipramine F
45. Electrical stimulation of the following causes anxiety:  
A. Vagus F
B. Hypothalamus F
C. Dorsal raphe nucleus F
D. Locus coeruleus T
E. Median raphe nucleus F
46. Obsessive rituals:  
A. Respond well to behaviour therapy F
B. Are usually anti-social F
C. Are not resisted F
D. Are sensibly regarded F
E. Reduce anxiety T
47. In psychogenic polydipsia:  
A. Polydipsia begins before polyuria T
B. Vasopressin may relieve thirst F
C. Urine flow decreases after hypertonic saline infusion T
D. Urine concentration is greater after vasopressin than after fluid deprivation F
E. Plasma osmolality is lower than normal T
48. Phobias have the following features:  
A. Viewed as negative compulsions T
B. Can be reasoned away F
C. Fear proportional to the threat F
D. Described by Marks in 1929 F
E. Involuntary T
49. The Ganser syndrome occurs in:  
A. Schizophrenia F
B. Manic-depressive psychosis F
C. Prisoners awaiting trial T
D. Personality disorders F
E. Hysteria F
50. Passivity experiences include:  
A. Made experiences T
B. Occur in manic-depressive psychosis F
C. Include echo de la pensee F
D. Are recognized in obsessional neurosis F
E. Exclude thought broadcasting F
51. Characteristic features of anorexia nervosa include:  
A. Normal BMR F
B. Hypothermia T
C. Lanugo hair T
D. Hypertension F
E. Phobia of normal body weight T
52. Agoraphobia is:  
A. Better treated by flooding than systematic desensitization T
B. Mainly seen in middle age T
C. A fear specific to open spaces F
D. Commoner in women T
E. Commonly associated with depersonalization T
53. The experience of depersonalization is:  
A. Usually pleasant F
B. Delusional F
C. Recognized as 'odd' T
D. Treatable with phenobarbitone F
E. Recognized as 'false' T
54. Animal phobias are:  
A. Commoner in men F
B. Usually occur in middle age F
C. Generally non-specific F
D. Treatable with behaviour therapy T
E. A poor diagnostic group F
55. Anaclitic depression is characterized by:  
A. Infants deprived of mother in early life T
B. Initial vigorous protest T
C. Severe despair T
D. A phase of detachment T
E. A predisposition to manic-depressive psychosis F
56. Social phobia:  
A. Is usually specific to a few individuals F
B. Has an equal sex distribution F
C. Is as common as agoraphobia F
D. Usually develops before puberty F
E. Responds poorly to behaviour therapy F
57. The following statements are true:  
A. Autoscopy is synonymous with phantom mirror-image T
B. Reflex hallucinations occur outside sensory field limits F
C. Functional hallucinations are experienced with their stimulus T
D. In extra-campine hallucinations, a stimulus in one sensory field produces a hallucination in another F
E. Functional hallucinations are rare in chronic schizophrenia F
58. Features of shell-shock include:  
A. Depersonalization T
B. Guilty ideation of delusional intensity F
C. Derealization T
D. Reliving the battle T
E. Calmness F
59. The following statements are true:  
A. Koro is an acute anxiety state T
B. Latah is an hysterical reaction to stress T
C. Windigo is a depressive psychosis T
D. Susto is an hysterical dissociation or depressive state F
E. Amok is an acute anxiety state F
60. Auditory pseudohallucinations occur in:  
A. Schizophrenia F
B. Hysteria T
C. Manic-depressive states F
D. Drug-induced states T
E. Phobic anxiety state F
61. The following statements are true in schizophrenia:  
A. Schism describes hostility between parents T
B. Skew describes a dominant mother and a submissive father T
C. Invalidation describes denial of feelings of family members T
D. Praecox feeling refers to empathic rapport with the patient T
E. Pseudomutuality is a method by which a family system maintains equilibrium T
62. Evidence for formal thought disorder includes:  
A. Inflexibility of personal constructs F
B. Knight's move thinking T
C. Loosening of personal constructs T
D. Nominal aphasia F
E. A normal repetory grid F
63. The revolving-door syndrome:  
A. May be due to cerebellar-vestibular dysfunction F
B. Is part of the revolving-room syndrome F
C. Refers to the cyclical re-admission of institutionalized patients T
D. Generates impressive 'statistics' for 'patient care' T
E. Rotates patients between system components with adequate care F
64. Schizophrenic thought disorder includes:  
A. 'Woolly' thinking T
B. Blurring of conceptual boundaries T
C. Paranoid delusions F
D. Omission T
E. Substitutions T
65. Delusions:  
A. Are held with a certainty that may be shakeable F
B. Are reality for the patient T
C. Are frequently held by other people F
D. Are rarely of personal significance T
E. Are usually of a bizarre nature F
66. The following statements are true:  
A. Mannerisms are non-goal directed repetitive movements F
B. Stereotypes are goal directed repetitive movements F
C. Opposition is an extreme form of negativism F
D. Athetosis consists of random, jerky movements F
E. Chorea consists of slow, writhing movements F
67. In Huntington's chorea:  
A. Athetoid movements are usual presenting signs F
B. Gross personality change is very unusual F
C. Children have a less rapid deterioration F
D. The onset of symptoms is usually in childhood F
E. 75 % of affected person's children develop the disease F
68. Illusions include:  
A. Macropsia T
B. Derealization T
C. Misinterpretations F
D. Depersonalization T
E. Micropsia T
69. Features of the Gilles de la Tourette syndrome include:  
A. Echolalia T
B. Coprolalia T
C. Coprophagia F
D. Flatus F
E. Echopraxia T
70. Eidetic images:  
A. Have been described by Taylor T
B. Are visual hallucinations F
C. Have never been perceived in relation to a real object F
D. May be thought of as 'photographic memory' T
E. Are a form of exterocepted visual pseudohallucinations T
71. With regard to psychiatric illness in general practice:  
A. Hysteria is very common F
B. Anxiety is relatively uncommon F
C. Psychotic illness is not usually referred F
D. 50 % of neurotic illness is usually referred F
E. Personality disorder is more common than depression F
72. Pseudohallucinations occur in:  
A. Dreams during sleep F
B. Lone prisoners T
C. Dreams whilst awake T
D. Long distance lorry drivers T
E. Sensory deprivation T
73. Treatment of postpartum 'blues' includes:  
A. Antidepressant medication F
B. Reassurance only F
C. Hypnotic medication F
D. Performing a dexamethasone suppression test F
E. Involvement of the husband in helping his wife T
74. Verbigeration occurs in:  
A. Extreme anxiety T
B. Ganser syndrome F
C. Senile dementia T
D. Malingering F
E. Catatonic schizophrenia T
75. The following associations are correct:  
A. Cameron and concrete thinking F
B. Schneider and condensation F
C. Bleuler and drivelling F
D. Goldstein and over-inclusive thinking F
E. Bleuler and loosening of associations T
76. The following statements are true:  
A. Delusions are ego involved T
B. Redundancy refers to the predictability of a word appearing T
C. Delusions are idiosyncratic T
D. Schizophrenic thought has a high level of redundancy F
E. Paranoia is another name for paraphrenia F
77. The characteristic hallucinations in alcoholic hallucinosis are:  
A. Visual T
B. Tactile F
C. Olfactory F
D. Auditory T
E. Gustatory F
78. Common associations with anorexia nervosa include:  
A. Delayed gastric emptying T
B. Lassitude F
C. Primary amenorrhoea F
D. Early morning waking T
E. Bulimia T
79. Phantom limb experiences:  
A. Only occur following limb amputation F
B. Include tactile hallucinations T
C. The phantom limb always corresponds in size to the previous limb F
D. Occurs in 70-100 % of all amputations after the age of 6 years T
E. 'Telescoping' occurs in one third of cases T
80. The following are true of culture-bound disorders:  
A. Latah features penile-retraction into the abdomen F
B. Piklokto is a dissociative state in Eskimo women T
C. Windigo involves mutation into a cannibalistic monster T
D. Koro features automatic obedience, echolalia, and echopraxia F
E. Susto involves loss of the soul T
The following questions don't have answers, but any psychiatric text should provide them.  
81. Features of normal pressure hydrocephalus include:  
A. Headache N
B. Memory impairment Y
C. Papilloedema N
D. Physical and mental retardation Y
E. A frequently abnormal EEG  
82. Features of Pick's disease may include:  
A. Fatuous mood Y
B. Apathy Y
C. General euphoria N
D. A frequently abnormal EEG N
E. Preservation of intellect N
83. Features of Alzheimer' s disease might include:  
A. Anxious mood Y
B. Depression Y
C. Specific abnormalities on EEG Y
D. A deficiency of GABA Y
E. A deficiency of serotonin Y
84. Neologisms occur in:  
A. Manic-depressive psychosis Y
B. Obsessional neurosis N
C. Organic brain disease  
D. Gilles de la Tourette syndrome  
E. Schizophrenia Y
85. Complications of chronic alcoholism may include:  
A. Paraesthesia and pain in the extremities Y
B. An abnormal pyruvate tolerance test  
C. Weakness of the limbs  
D. Osteoporosis N
E. A decrease in erythrocyte transketolase activity  


Last Updated on Sunday, 30 June 2013 21:39


1. In behavioural psychotherapy :  
A. Flooding cannot be achieved in an imaginal way
B. Systematic desensitization is an aspect of aversive conditioning
C. Response prevention is characteristically combined with flooding
D. Physical restraint is no longer used in response prevention
E. Virtuous circles are a factor in most fear-reduction techniques
2. Simple phobias :  
A. Are commoner in men
B. Mostly arise de novo in adulthood
C. Are best treated by relaxation training
D. Typically lead to symptoms of depersonalization
E. Are associated with mitral valve prolapse
3. The following terms are correctly defined :  
A. Stimulus generalization is when a response learnt in one situation is exhibited in another
B. Primary reinforcers are things such as food and water
C. Secondary reinforcers are things such as sex, money, etc
D. Stimulus discrimination is when a learner responds differently to two slightly different stimuli
E. Response discrimination refers to the ability to make the same response in the same situation time after time
4. The following are true of various types of learning :  
A. shaping is also known as ‘cognitive dissonance’
B. backward chaining can be used to teach children to toilet themselves
C. observational learning is a type of classical conditioning
D. modelling is a type of observational learning
E. a programme which begins with reinforcement of the last act in a sequence is known as ‘forward chaining’
5. Systematic desensitization :  
A. was developed by Skinner
B. is a form of operant conditioning
C. is the treatment of choice for obsessional thoughts
D. relaxation is an essential part of the treatment
E. drugs can be used to produce relaxation
6. Variable ratio schedules of reinforcement :  
A. can only be used in operant conditioning situations
B. need proportionally more trials to achieve a given criteria of learning
C. increase the resistance to extinction
D. are more likely to produce emotional outbursts during the learning phase
E. are less likely to produce emotional outbursts during the extinction phase
7. With reference to conditioning models of behaviour :  
A. it is difficult to label any real life situation as totally operant or totally classical
B. in the 1940s, several psychoanalysts applied them successfully to demonstrate Freudian concepts
C. they can explain either systematic desensitization or flooding, but not both
D. they are increasingly demonstrating how unimportant cognitive factors are in behaviour
E. they emphasize the importance of timing and order in any learning situation
8. In classical conditioning:  
A. Thorndike is a key figure
B. Spontaneous recovery only occurs after a short delay
C. The longer the time between extinction and reappearance of CS, the weaker the response
D. Forward conditioning is when the CS always precedes the UCS
E. The strength of CR is proportional to the intensity of the UCS
9. The following statements about classical conditioning are true:  
A. The learned immune response is an example of classical conditionng
B. Taste aversions typify classical conditioning
C. Classical conditioning underlies systematic densitization
D. Second-order conditioning may be a model for the acquisition of phobias
E. Incubation means that some stimuli are more likely to become CS than others
10. Operant conditioning:  
A. Is the same as Instrumental conditioning
B. Is associated with B. F. Skinner
C. Extinction and spontaneous recovery do not occur
D. Positive reinforcers are inherently rewarding, e.g. food, sex
E. Negative reinforcers weaken a particular response
11. The following are true of reinforcement:  
A. Escape conditioning is an example of negative conditioning
B. A shuttle-box utilizes avoidance conditioning
C. Behaviour learned through avoidance conditioning is resistant to extinction as it is often reinforced by fear reduction
D. Money is a secondary reinforcer
E. Secondary reinforcers are also known as ‘conditioned reinforcers’
12. In reinforcement:  
A. A variable ratio schedule means that reinforcement is given after a variable amount of time
B. Gambling is an example of variable-interval conditioning
C. Partial reinforcement is involved in the development of superstitious behaviour
D. Variable ratio reinforcement results in quick, stepped responding
E. Behaviour learned through partial reinforcement is very resistant to extinction
13. Regarding operant conditioning:  
A. Punishment is synonymous with penalty
B. Punishment strengthens positive responses
C. Shaping is best used when the complete response desired is simple
D. Toilet training is an example of ‘backward chaining’
E. ‘Time-out’ is an example of the use of penalty
14. Regarding cognitive processes in learning:  
A. Seligman described learned helplessness
B. Insight learning can occur in primates
C. Bandura demonstrated vicarious conditioning
D. Practice of a skill is necessary until the point of almost-correct performance
E. Sign-learning theory includes the formation of cognitive maps
15. The following are true of perceptual theories:  
A. The ecological view states that the perceptual system constructs detail from clues in the environment
B. Constructionism is an example of top-down processing
C. Weber’s law states that as stimulus magnitude increases, larger changes in physical magnitude are required
D. Fechner’s law applies to electric shocks
E. Weber’s law does not hold when stimuli are very intense or very weak
16. In perceptual organization:  
A. Camouflage demonstrates reversal of figure and ground
B. Perceptual phenomena demonstrate Gestalt effects
C. Gestalt theories are an example of bottom-up processing
D. Perception of depth and distance illustrate ecological views of perception
E. Perception of movement does not rely on movement of the retinal image
17. The following are true:  
A. Perception of motion depends on interstimulus interval
B. Perceptual sets demonstrate top-down processing
C. Chunking of information facilitates processing
D. The ‘visual cliff’ suggests depth perception develops around six-months of age
E. Attention always occurs without conscious effort
18. The following are true of memory:  
A. The capacity of short term memory (STM) can be increased by chunking
B. Visually-encoded information fades more quickly from STM
C. Decay theory suggests that forgetting is item-dependent
D. Retroactive inhibition suggests that previous learning impairs subsequent learning
E. ECT can interrupt consolidation and produce retrograde amnesia
19. Models of memory include:  
A. Dual memory theory
B. Perceptual Representation System
C. Transfer-appropriate processing
D. Constructive memory
E. Maintenance rehearsal is more effective than elaborative rehearsal
20. Regarding the neurophysiology of memory:  
A. Bilateral damage to the hippocampus produces retrograde amnesia
B. Basal forebrain lesions can result in a Korsakoff’s type memory deficit
C. 5-HT agonists impair cognition since acetylcholine release is under inhibitory 5-HT tone
D. Endorphins are involved in memory processes
E. RNA is involved in memory transfer
21. Regarding theories of thought:  
A. Cognitive maps may exhibit systematic distortion
B. ‘Home’ is a natural concept
C. Scripts are mental representations of concepts
D. Problem solving involves ignoring negative evidence
E. Incubation can help to break mental sets
22. The following are true about theories of personality:  
A. Adler described ‘striving for superiority’
B. Adler emphasized the importance of sexual urges
C. Jung described ‘introversion’ and ‘extraversion’
D. Trait theories employ a normothetic approach
E. Eysenck used a ‘dimensional’ approach to personality
23. Regarding personality:  
A. Costa and McCrae’s model only holds in Westernized countries
B. John Watson is associated with personality research
C. Bandura described ‘reciprocal determinism’
D. Carl Rogers described ‘self-actualization’ and ‘self-concepts’
E. Maslow is associated with ‘conditions of worth’
24. The following are true of motivation:  
A. Drive reduction theory is based on the principle of homeostasis
B. Primary drives are learned desires
C. People perform best when their level of arousal is low
D. ‘Need achievement’ demonstrates clear gender differences
E. Belongingness and love are at the apex of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
25. Regarding emotion:  
A. Facial movements expressing emotion are controlled by the pyramidal system
B. The James-Lange theory emphasized the importance of physiological responses
C. The Cannon-Bard theory described ‘transferred excitation’
D. Social referencing only occurs in brain-damaged patients
E. Facial feedback can drive emotional experience according to the Schacter-Singer theory
26. Regarding social construction of the self and attribution theory:  
A. Festinger described ‘social comparison’
B. ‘Relative deprivation’ means that however much we get, it is less than we deserve
C. According to attribution theory, in internal attribution, distinctiveness is high, and consensus and consistency are low
D. The fundamental attribution error means that we tend to overattribute the behaviour of others to external factors
E. The ultimate attribution error means that we attribute others positive actions to external causes, and negative actions to internal causes
27. Regarding attitudes:  
A. Attitudes consist of cognitive, affective, and behavioural components
B. Attitudes can only be learned through operant conditioning
C. The ‘mere-exposure effect’ suggests that the more that we are exposed to an object, the more negative our attitudes will be towards it
D. The ‘Elaboration-likelihood model’ says that persuasive messages can change people’s attitudes via peripheral and central routes
28. The following are true of theories about attitudes:  
A. Leon Festinger is associated with ‘cognitive dissonance theory’
B. Cognitive dissonance may be more likely to change attitudes in individualist cultures such as Europe or the USA
C. Daryl Bem is associated with ‘Self-perception theory’
D. ‘Self-perception theory’ suggests that people infer their behaviour to match their attitudes
E. People may change their behaviour in situations where they are not sure what their attitudes are
29. The following are true of prejudices and stereotypes:  
A. The ‘authoritarian personality’ may be more likely in people who were not exposed to punishment, and so feel that they do not have to obey or defer to others
B. ‘Illusory correlations’ can occur when noticeably objective behaviour is performed by a few members of an easily identified ethnic group
C. The ‘contact hypothesis’ suggests that we are more likely to reduce our prejudices when we are exposed to members of the other group who are of a higher status
D. Norms can be descriptive (what others approve or disapprove of) or injunctive (indicate what others do)
E. Deindividuation may cause people to perform aggressive or illegal acts in certain situations
30. The following are true of conformity:  
A. Compliance occurs when people adjust their behaviour as a result of unspoken group pressure
B. Ambiguity of the situation increases the likelihood of conforming to a group norm
C. ‘Social impact theory’ holds that the power of a group depends on how important and how close that group is to the person in question
D. Women are more likely to conform to a group than men
E. The presence of others who disobey can make someone more likely to be obedient
31. The following are true of aggression:  
A. Freud proposed that aggression is a biological urge, and is due to Thanatos
B. The amygdala and hypothalamus are involved in aggression
C. Aggressive behaviour is more likely in collective cultures
D. Immediate reward or punishment can alter the frequency of aggressive acts
E. Aggression is more likely to occur following an expected failure than an unexpected one
32. In altruistic behaviour:  
A. The ‘bystander effect’ indicates that the more people who witness an emergency, the less likely it is that someone will help
B. The tendency to blame oneself rather than the group is called ‘diffusion of responsibility’
C. Task-oriented leaders are more effective when the task is structured
D. Person-oriented leaders are most effective when the group is working under time pressure
E. ‘Groupthink’ is likely when the group is isolated, and is under time pressure


Last Updated on Sunday, 30 June 2013 21:40



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